My girlfriend recently had a papsmear, and the biopsy came back as no displascia, however with cervical inflammation present. She was also tested for other STDs (Gonnorea/Chlamydia/HIV etc), and has never had a herpes outbreak of any kind (HSV1 or 2). A couple weeks before the test I "fingered" her and may have scratched her cervix. I'm wondering if A) HPV could have caused this inflammation, and B) am I at risk for acquiring a disease. I've used a condom every time with her, and have not had any sexual contact without a condom on.
Thank you for your help,
Rip