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Sti's

So... i was tested in july (neg.for sti's) then started a sexual relationship with a male who has never been tested for std's but only had sex with a virgin and received oral from a very promiscuous female multiple times. I was new to the pill and got another pap/std check in jan came back (pos. for C.) i was only with this individual since my (neg. pap)

1.) Is it possible that he has been carrying this for 2 years & got it orally (with no symptoms) ? Then infected me, and i gave it back to him which explains why he is only seeing symptoms now??

2.) I called an std hot line they said C. CAN orally infect a male (due to C. being in the females throat) BUT...... my nurse said that C. only infects ppl through sexual intercourse only gonorrhea is through oral, who is right???
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Avatar universal
Chlamydia is extremely rare in the throat - Dr. HHH and Dr. Hook on this forum both doubt that its transmission from oral to genital ever happens at all! they are expert and there is no need to question.

Also, Dr. handsfield has said several times that over a period as long as 2 years it it unlikely that a bacterial infection such as Chlamydia would persist. Check his forum - its on there.

So, it is very unlikely (nye on inconceivable) that your BF got Chlamydia from oral sex. It is also unlikely that he carried it for two years.

Is it conceivable that you brought this into the relationship from previous partner? -
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Avatar universal
I would not imagine, considering i was tested in July & results showed neg. ( i also used condoms with my other relations) ...
What do you think is really the case here????

--I'm really confused any input is greatly appreciated
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Avatar universal
Possibilities are endless...first maybe you had a false negative on your 1st test? Which from what you said would be impossible (due to the use of condoms). Maybe his sexual past is not as clear as he said. Maybe he cheated and infected you?

It is hard to say what went on and how and when you got it. But the important thing is to make sure you are getting the treatment for it.

And as justneedanswers said getting it orally would be very very rare, if at all possible.
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Avatar universal
I think Vance's answer to this is fairly comprehensive.

Its an important note that many health services/providers etc... particularly in western europe say that Chlamydia can be transmitted by oral sex - but this is generally regarded as scare tactics so people get tested more frequently. Its all ridiculous to be honest.

In your case, I wouldn't dig to deep or stay up at night thinking what might or might not have happened. If this is a partner who you see potential with - make sure you both get treated accordingly and abstain for a week or so (no real need for test-of-cure).

By all means talk to your partner about his past - I really wouldnt go accusing him about his fidelity. there are other possibilities on the table that means he could be perfectly innocent.
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Avatar universal
it is possible for females to contract this via oral sex/fingering ???
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Avatar universal
sorry i ment to state... "is it possible that two females that give and recieve oral sex with each other/finger each other one coudl have been infected and gave it to the other???"
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Avatar universal
regarding chlamydia to the question above???
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207091 tn?1337709493
COMMUNITY LEADER
Its unlikely that women who have sex with women will transmit chlamydia.  Its almost never, if at all, transmitted via oral sex, and its never transmitted by fingering.

I don't know if your partners are always women, but here's a pretty good site about women having sex with women - lesbianstd.com

Aj
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Avatar universal
another thing is it possible that the gyno test back in july wouldn't have saw the chlamydia
is there a slight chance of a false negative?
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Avatar universal
If you were tested for STD's in July then the chance would be very small. Most tests are not going to produce a false negative, but it is possible.
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