I found out that I have anal hpv 10 years ago from wart appearing outside of anal. So been treating them all these years. I did a biopsy recently which was a bit confusing.
The biopsy result say:
1) low PAIN-1
2) no definitive HGAIN dysphasia identified
My question here I understand point 1 that it is low risk but what is point 2 saying? Are they saying they can’t rule out high risk or they didn’t find high risk? I’m confused