Sorry I did not mean to post excessively. It's just that there are many conflicting opinions on what constitutes condom failure or loss of condom integrity due to the usage of oil based lubes and it's pretty confusing. Sorry.
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Thanks for your kind response. However, while reading other forums online, an expert doctor wrote this: Oil-based lubricant won't only make the latex condom prone to breakage, but it can decrease the condom's ability to prevent HIV and other STIs from passing through the barrier (or as you say, makes it permeable). So if you use oil-based lubricant with a latex condom and it doesn't break, that does not mean that the condom was effective in preventing disease transmission.
I do not know specifically how long it takes for the condom to lose it's effectiveness when oil-based lubrication is used, but it can happen quickly. Regardless of the timeframe, you should not consider the condom to have been 100% effective.
What do you think of his assessment? My used condom still held water when I filled it up so would it be correct to say it did not fail and was 100% effective?
Condoms don't become porous. If petroluim based lube is use it can cause the condom to fail. If you didn't have a condom failure you didn't have an exposure.
If the condom doesn't break you had no risk