Transmission% Clarification

[ronbstn]

After reading posts by the experts and people on this forum, it is clear to me that un-protected anal sex (receiver) with someone who is HIV positive, "usually results in transmission 0.5-1% of the time". Can someone please clarify this? Does that mean if semen enters the bloodstream? Does that mean if semen enters into the rectum?

And also, If a condom break occurs before ejaculation, is the receiver at a lower risk than not had used a condom at all? and also without intra-rectal ejaculation? And does there have to be a significant amount of the virus to infect someone?

Thanks

[kumar007]

transmission can occur with the 1st exposure, however, it may take several times for it to occur as well..
having said that, you dont need to worry because head of penis was covered=no risk

[ronbstn]

thanks! also, the doctors on here are saying transmission results 0.5-1% of the time, so does this mean if someone had un-protected sex 100 times, chances of having it would be 50/50? And that a one time exposure isn't a 50/50% chance of getting the virus? --that people usually "dodge a bullet" on their first time, "brief", exposure??

[kumar007]

you only would have had a risk if the head of the penis was exposed..
if it was covered..you are in the clear..transmission only occurs if the head was exposed

[ronbstn]

i was the receiver

[ronbstn]

I'm a gay man, i engaged in anal sex (with condom) although condom tore on side about early/mid way through sex. I was exposed for about 5 to 10 seconds. he did not ejaculate. The top sill appeared to be covered. I'm just curious to know about transmission clarification.

[kumar007]

what was your risk?