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STD (Mis)information
Hi - I am new to this website and forum and have come here because I am so confused with all the information regarding STDs. I initially posted this in the STD forum but was asked to post it here instead.
Basically my question is related to STDs in general - but more specifically, Herpes and Genital Warts (for the sake of argument can we pls assume that Herpes is an STD).
I have read that with both Herpes and Genital Warts, someone can still contract these infections through sexual contact with a carrier of these viruses - EVEN IF the carrier displays NO symptoms.
In fact, the carrier MAY NOT EVEN BE AWARE they are a carrier, and STILL pass on the virus.
I have also read that a condom may not be enough to protect a man as Herpes and Genital Warts are transmitted by skin-to-skin contact.
So, in relation to the above, my questions specifically are:
1. Is a man at risk of an STD (including Herpes and Genital Warts) by receiving oral sex and/or engaging in vaginal penetration with a woman (sexual worker or otherwise) if he wears a condom?
For example, if the woman makes oral contact with a man's genital area (apart from the penis with condom) is there a chance of Herpes being transmitted through oral contact with the scrotum and surrounding area?
And the same with Genital Warts - what is the risk level in this scenario? What exactly is the type of skin-to-skin contact that lends itself to a risk of infection - and which the condom is unable to protect against?
2. Is there any risk from French kissing? e.g. - if a woman has oral herpes / or any other STD (but either doesn't know she has or isn't showing any symptoms), can that be transmitted to a man via French kissing?
3. Do these or any STD viruses reside in any other parts of the body (apart from mouth and genitals)? Could a man get infected in any way by exposing his tongue to the breast area / nipples / buttocks / inner thighs or other parts of the female body.
4. If the woman touches her genitals and then touches the man's genital area, is there a risk of passing any infection here?
My apologies in advance if these questions seem immature or "basic". I have only seen contradictory information which is confusing and all Im trying to do is get educated so I can make better informed decisions with a general understand of the risks involved.
Thank you very much
ps - when I ask "is there a risk", Im sure there is always a risk - so all Im trying to understand is the degree of risk....
Basically my question is related to STDs in general - but more specifically, Herpes and Genital Warts (for the sake of argument can we pls assume that Herpes is an STD).
I have read that with both Herpes and Genital Warts, someone can still contract these infections through sexual contact with a carrier of these viruses - EVEN IF the carrier displays NO symptoms.
In fact, the carrier MAY NOT EVEN BE AWARE they are a carrier, and STILL pass on the virus.
I have also read that a condom may not be enough to protect a man as Herpes and Genital Warts are transmitted by skin-to-skin contact.
So, in relation to the above, my questions specifically are:
1. Is a man at risk of an STD (including Herpes and Genital Warts) by receiving oral sex and/or engaging in vaginal penetration with a woman (sexual worker or otherwise) if he wears a condom?
For example, if the woman makes oral contact with a man's genital area (apart from the penis with condom) is there a chance of Herpes being transmitted through oral contact with the scrotum and surrounding area?
And the same with Genital Warts - what is the risk level in this scenario? What exactly is the type of skin-to-skin contact that lends itself to a risk of infection - and which the condom is unable to protect against?
2. Is there any risk from French kissing? e.g. - if a woman has oral herpes / or any other STD (but either doesn't know she has or isn't showing any symptoms), can that be transmitted to a man via French kissing?
3. Do these or any STD viruses reside in any other parts of the body (apart from mouth and genitals)? Could a man get infected in any way by exposing his tongue to the breast area / nipples / buttocks / inner thighs or other parts of the female body.
4. If the woman touches her genitals and then touches the man's genital area, is there a risk of passing any infection here?
My apologies in advance if these questions seem immature or "basic". I have only seen contradictory information which is confusing and all Im trying to do is get educated so I can make better informed decisions with a general understand of the risks involved.
Thank you very much
ps - when I ask "is there a risk", Im sure there is always a risk - so all Im trying to understand is the degree of risk....
Shedding does occur but not that often. This would only be an issue if you had a regular partner with herpes not onetime random affairs.
HPV also very low risk when no warts are present without a condom and with a condom close to zero risk.
No, not much of any risk from those areas more would be the genital areas.
HPV also very low risk when no warts are present without a condom and with a condom close to zero risk.
No, not much of any risk from those areas more would be the genital areas.
***Thank you! And thank you for your answers. If I may, I'd just like some clarification based on what you've said.
1.If she does not have any lip sores at the time the risk for transmitting to any area from a one time affair would be close to zero and specificlly the areas you mention are even lower as the scrotum skin is to thick. Also there needs to be lip contact not tougue.
***would there be any risk specifically without any symptoms such as sores etc (because many government health sites state there is a risk of passing the virus even without any symptoms showing)
***have you based your answers on a man with or without condom protection?
***and what are the risks of genital warts from protected vaginal intercourse
2. same as above.
3. Yes, below the waist is the sacrum zone and the breast up is considered the oral zone. But most of the time the imediate genital and lip areas would be the areas of recurrant outbreaks meaning herpes almost aways breaks out in the same spot give or take an inch.
***so there is a chance of herpes being passed from woman to man by the innocent act of a man sucking a woman’s breast / nipples/ buttocks / inner thigh area?
***or is this a small risk and not worth any concern?
4. no
Thank you...
Hi and welcome to the forum.
1.If she does not have any lip sores at the time the risk for transmitting to any area from a one time affair would be close to zero and specificlly the areas you mention are even lower as the scrotum skin is to thick. Also there needs to be lip contact not tougue.
2. same as above.
3. Yes, below the waist is the sacrum zone and the breast up is considered the oral zone. But most of the time the imediate genital and lip areas would be the areas of recurrant outbreaks meaning herpes almost aways breaks out in the same spot give or take an inch.
4. no
1.If she does not have any lip sores at the time the risk for transmitting to any area from a one time affair would be close to zero and specificlly the areas you mention are even lower as the scrotum skin is to thick. Also there needs to be lip contact not tougue.
2. same as above.
3. Yes, below the waist is the sacrum zone and the breast up is considered the oral zone. But most of the time the imediate genital and lip areas would be the areas of recurrant outbreaks meaning herpes almost aways breaks out in the same spot give or take an inch.
4. no
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You are reading content posted in the Herpes Community
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
