Herpes transmission risk

[2cft]

I am sorry for the double-post, but I initially posted this question in the dermatology forum.

I am a 29-year old male. A few weeks ago I received unprotected oral sex from a massage girl. She used mouthwash before and during the act (unsure why). Since then, I have not had any prodrome symtoms, or lesions (lumps, bumps, blisters, cuts) - but I have been itchy - perhaps because I check myself every 30 minutes to see if anything has changed - so the skin is very dry.  

While my anxieties are easing, I have been off-put by the seeming contradiction of information on the internet regarding the symptoms of genital HSV1 and those indicated to me by a few GPs. For the good of myself and my fellow anxious mistake-makers, could you please clarify/refute the following contradictions?

The internet states the following in several sources:
1. Initial outbreak of HSV1 in the genital area is predominately asymptomatic
2. Oral sex transmission of HSV is as common as genital-to-genital transmission

What I have heard from two GPs I have visited in my anxieties is as follows:
1. I should expect to have burning urination, localized swollen lymphnodes, skin lesions which would include either or blister clusters or, to a lesser extent, cracks in the skin. There was the possibility that infection was asymptomatic, but that it was unlikely. Those individuals who believe that they are asymptomatic have symtoms, but often, on a first infection, attribute it to some other cause.
2. Transmission of HSV1 to genitals is possible, but risks are much lower than with traditional intercourse because there is less abrasion, meaning that there is less likelihood of open skin, which is generally necessary to facilitate the transfer of the virus and, further, while asympomatic shedding is possible, transmission during this time is even lower risk.
3. After 3 weeks without any prodrome or "typical" symptoms, I am at very low risk for having contracted HSV, in particular

Any help you could provide would be much appreciated - and thank you kindly for being part of this forum. It is incredibly helpful, I'm sure, for the thousands who are party of it.

[J_21]

i would greatly appreciate it if u could help with this question it would be greatly appreciated my girlfriend is a virgin but she has received genital herpes from oral sex with another man before i came along. She let me know this just the other day. She has had the STD for 3 years and has only received a breakout when she first contracted the disease. I have oral herpes or get cold soars and i am on medication for those and she is on medication for her genital herpes i think its called acyclovir what is the likelyhood of me getting genital herpes from her if we engage in intercourse with a condom please help doctor this is a question that has really been bugging at me thank you

[2cft]

And yes - I have a full screen for STIs/STDs at least annually, and tested negative for HSV1 and HSV2 on my last screen, 6 months ago.

[2cft]

Grace -

Thank-you for your comments and sanity!

[gracefromHHP]

First off have you ever been tested for herpes to know your own herpes status? Can you recall any obvious cold sores?

Most folks who contract hsv1 genitally do get obvious symptoms because it's not the "preferred" place of infection so it tends to cause  obvious symptoms.  You have nothing that suggests genital herpes and I highly recommend that you put your penis away and stop looking at it obsessively.  Check it out once daily during or after your shower and that's it.  It's tim e to stop worrying that you contracted hsv1 genitally. it was very low risk to begin with and you've had no symptoms that suggest that you do have it.

grace