I have the common herpes sem1 cold sores, and have had them since I was a child (30s now). I don’t have any genitalia infections.
I have someone I’ve been dating whom I have not done anything intimate with, but I have learned that she has been infected 9 years ago with semplex1 (tested and verified 3 times) in her genital area from a partner that performed oral sex on her when he had a cold sore.
Dr Google seems to think that hs1 can not infect my genital area because i already have the infection (or at least its a very low chance). We both take regular medications to reduce outbreaks, and assuming we were to get intimate, am I at high risk for further infection?
Thank you