My girlfriend (age 30) and I (age 36) have been having unprotected intercourse in a monogamous relationship for over one year. She has not experienced any symptoms of STDs. I experienced no symptoms of STDs until two months ago, in October, when I noticed three large, hard pimple-like lesions spread across the length of my penis. They healed in about two to three weeks.
Last month, in November, shortly after the earlier pimple-like lesions had healed, three separate areas of watery blisters appeared on my penis. Their locations were not coincidental with the previous pimple-like lesions. They healed in about two to three weeks.
When the watery blisters first appeared, I went with my girlfriend to a hospital in Thailand.
She was tested for an Array of STDs including a herpes test. Her doctor, a gynecologist, told us that herpes is very common, it didn't matter much if either of us had it, and that we didn't need to test for it. I requested a test for my girlfriend anyway. The doctor seemed a little confused about which of the tests to administer, especially after I was asking for a test that would distinguish between Type I and Type II herpes.
I was tested for common STDs, but my doctor, a urologist, said that I didn't need to be tested for herpes. He said that from viewing the blisters it was obvious that I had herpes. From the research I'd done online, I agreed with him. Although looking back on it now, it would have been best to get a Type specific test for myself. He also seemed to think that herpes wasn't a big deal and that neither my girlfriend nor I needed to worry about it.
I suspected that my girlfriend had possibly not recognized previous symptoms of herpes in herself and that I had contracted it from her recently when she was shedding. However, I also understood that I could have herpes for a long time without ever having had symptoms, so I was worried that maybe I got it elsewhere long ago and I wanted to prevent the infection of my girlfriend if she didn't already have herpes.
A few days later we received the results of my girlfriend's herpes test as follows:
HSV Ab. Type I&II, IgG negative and IgM negative
Now its December and less than two weeks after the second outbreak healed up, I again have watery blisters in the same location as the previous ones.
Here are my questions:
If my girlfriend doesn't have herpes (as indicated by her test), is it probable that I could have contracted herpes over a year ago and remained symptom-free for at least a year until now when I have new outbreaks of blisters every month?
I can't tell that my girlfriend's test results indicate anything separately about Type I and Type II, but it seems clear that she has neither. Is this test reliable?
I was tested for herpes greater than 3 years ago. Type I was positive. Type II was negative. I'd had no oral nor genital symptoms at that time. Is it possible that my Type I herpes was previously located orally and that I recently reinfected myself genitally with Type I?
Thank you.