I'm currently suffering with testicular pain (mainly on one side) and it appears to be to the rear in the epididymis and also seems to be up into my Vas deferens too, its really quite painful. I had intercourse with a sex worker 5 months ago and the condom broke and now I'm worried about possible STD.
I have had no STD symptoms other than that and what happened a couple of weeks ago... I suffer from depression so my Dr prescribed me with Venlafaxine about 4 weeks ago. A week or so after taking the Venlafaxine I suffered from an urgent need to urinate, almost every 10 minutes, at this point my Dr carried out a UTI test which came back negative. I have since stopped taking the Venlafaxine and the need to urinate has subsided. I felt some discomfort in-between my scrotum and anus while taking the Venlafaxine which may or may not be where my prostate is located? As result I self massaged (sometimes quite aggressively) to try to alleviate the urination problems, 2 weeks later I now have quite severe pain in my testicle. It seems that something has happened in my prostate and now I have a resultant pain in my testicle. I'm so incredibly worried that my sexual encounter 5 months ago is now presenting? Can an STI be asymptomatic for 5 months then present as a frequent need to urinate then subsequent pain in my testicle? There is no urethra discharge, no pain when urinating, just the need to urinate and testicular pain. It doesn't make sense that I had a possible prostate problem and constant need to urinate followed by testicular pain and then a negative UTI test, it only makes me think that an STI is responsible?