hey there:
my question is complicated.
many years ago, between 7-12 years ago, i had received unprotected oral from csw women in the usa. i never has symptoms of syohilis and i am married.
a few years ago i decided to test for syphilis. two rpr tests both negative.
but during those years of behavior 7-12 years ago i had 7 day amoxicillin given to me for teeth work, twice over the years. could i have had syohilis from the receptive orall, never had symptoms, given it to my wife, she never had symptoms, and then years later tested negative for syphilis — my concern is that inadvertently cured it from the 7 day course of amox, at some point and thus tested negative years later.
i know this is complex hope the question makes sense?