Is the risk of STD transmission via unprotected oral sex affected by the use of an antiseptic mouth wash either before (for transmission from the giver to the receiver of oral sex) or after (for transmission from the receiver to the giver) oral sex. There was a post on this forum from September 30, 2006 in which Dr. Hunter Handsfield reported:
"Topical antiseptics, including listerine, have not been studied for their effectiveness in STD prevention. The best guess, based on distant past experience with other antiseptics (from thw WW II era) suggests little effect. Washing after sex can't hurt, but I doubt using listerine, alcohol, etc does not any difference beyond the minor benefit of soap and water."
Can someone kindly explain why the use of an antiseptic mouth was would have little or no impact on oral transmission of STD? I understand that viruses (HIV, HPV) might not be killed by an antiseptic mouth wash but would the load of other microorganisms be reduced in the oral cavity thus reducing transmission risk? This seems counter to basic germ theory and to countless public health recommendations to wash your hands to reduce transmission of various infections (including the flu virus). I know that we're talking about something other than handwashing but the logic still seems to apply to the current example. Is it possible that antiseptic mouthwashes simply don't work to reduce the microbe levels? If that is so, why do dentists have patients rinse with an antiseptic mouthwash?