Risk Assessment Please

[bluebook1]

Please assess my risk potential for the following situation:

Married 42 male.  From May 2012-July 2013 I had an affair with another married woman (37) who had previous affairs with married men.  She also had an adnormal pap during our affair.  Affair consisted of unprotected oral and vaginal.

September 2013. I tested negative for Chly, Gon, HIV, Syphilis, and Hep B/C.  Also tested negative again for all April 2014 and July 2014.  I took a total of 5 tests for each.  I never had any symptoms for any of these.

April 2014 wife started having vaginal discomfort.  Lasted about 1 month.  This reoccured in August 2014.  She also has irregular periods that started around this time.  She never had irregular periods before.  She tested negative for trich and BV.

What are the chances I passed an std (mainly chlymadia) onto her?  Again, I never had symptoms and always tested negative.

Thank You

[HowardH]

There was no appreciable risk that you were infected or gave anything to your wife. As for your wife's symptoms, they don't suggest chlamydia or any other STD; STDs generally don't cause "vaginal discomfort" or irregular menstruation. Assuming she is roughly your age, I would guess a hormonal or other explanation, perhaps impending menopause.

You can safely move on with no further worries about STD in either you or your wife.

[Vance2335]

Unlikely.

[bluebook1]

I was worried that I was infected early in my affair, passed it onto my wife, then cleared the infection before I was tested.  This would also mean I was never reinfected by my wife.  Thoughts?  Thank you for your time!

[Vance2335]

If you tested negative then you never had it to give.