Hi,
I had my doctor pre-emptively treat me after an episode of unprotected vaginal sex for STDs with IM shot of rocephin and PO Zithromax. This was one week after exposure and tests for NGU and chlamydia did come back negative. Almost 8 weeks after the exposure I had a syphillis test and it was negative. I never had any symptoms of primary or secondary syphillis, but now my husband has a weird rash and my googling for answers has led to all kinds of scary things. Do you think the antibiotics would have caused false negative? Could I have never had symptoms and still have it? I tested negative for HIV with duo at 8, 10 weeks and Oraquick at home swab at 6, 6 1/2, 18 months. Trying to move past a bad decision and not attribute every health problem that pops up to this.