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Need Guidance
I had sex outside my marriage in December. Afterwards, I had protected sex (with a condom) with my wife three times. I had no symptoms of any STD. However, out of anxiety I did a full STD check and was tested positive for gonnorhea. I was then treated for it. What are the chances that I could have given it to my wife, even with the use of a condom? And do I need to tell her about this?
I did not have any symptoms. that is why I never suspected I was putting my wife at any risk. So do you think it is safe not to inform her of what has happened? I don't want any harm to come to her.
Ps - thanks so much for the guidance.
Ps - thanks so much for the guidance.
Oral sex is a risk for gonorrhea. So I say you either got a false positive or got it from oral. Did you have any symptoms?
If you used a condom then she had no real risk.
If you used a condom then she had no real risk.
That is the weird thing. Sex with other person was protected except for brief unprotected oral. That almost makes me think I had a false positive on my test for gonnorhea. But I know false positives are so rare that I cannot count on that. The more likely scenario is that I got gonnorhea. Now my major concern is whether I could have given it to my wife. I am so worried that I might have harmed her and need to tell her so she can get treated. But we have young children and I don't want to break the home if there is no risk that I gave it to her. I am such an idiot for doing this to her and my family.
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