Thank you for taking the time to reply.
If I am understanding your reply, it states that there really is no or low risk of transmission in the first week after infection due to replication of virus not taking place outside of the spleen lymph nodes?
I understand theoretically the belief that oral sex (and to clarify, I'm referring male to male both giving and receiving) carries no risk, but to your second post, could it not be possible should one's viral load be extraordinarily high as is found in an acute HIV individual?
Again, thank you for the discussion and considerate reply.
Also, I just noticed that my setting is set to female when I am actually a male. I am referring to male to male oral sex in this post.
(If anyone knows how to change one's settings, I would appreciate it knowing how!)