I began having sex with my then boyfriend at the end of December 2013. Within 2-3 weeks afterward, I was having heavy watery discharge and went to see my doctor. I had an STD screen which came up negative and was diagnosed / treated for BV with antibiotics. My then bf did not seek treatment since it was diagnosed as BV and he had no symptoms. Symptoms cleared. We did not have sex / unprotected sex except maybe once a month or two months due to long distance relationship. We got married at the beginning of May and as newlyweds, engaged in quite a bit of sexual activity (unprotected since I thought prior testing showed no stds after sex with him / therefore he was clear). I was recently having symptoms of what I thought may be the BV again although symptoms were a bit different, returned to my doctor, had a new STD screen, and came up with definite Trich, and probable gonorrhea / chlamydia (awaiting actual results in a few days). I KNOW I haven't been with anyone else for years and have had regular testing which always came back clean (annual physicals) and never had symptoms of BV or anything until we got together. He says he hasn't been with anyone since we got together in December and without the STD issue, I would believe him. He has suggested maybe "we" have had this undetected for a while or it wasn't transmitted to me because of our infrequent sexual activity till now. So, my question is with the symptoms in January, and again now, how likely is it that I was misdiagnosed in January with BV instead of the STDs above and treatment then either made me asymptomatic / cleared it / etc or is it likely that he had sex outside our relationship and this is a new infection? Honestly, with us having been long distance, I would understand if he had other partners and had told him so, but am bothered that now that we are married, he might not be telling the truth.