Have been with my husband for 10years (married for 7) and found out while pregnant with our second child that i had gonorrhea. I believe in my husband and trust him that he did not cheat on me. I have not cheated on him. (I slept with someone a few weeks into being in the new relationship with my husband - all them 10years ago)
I spoke with the doctor about my privates and how my discharge was different and also the smell - i put it down to hormones, mixing of fluids during intercourse etc to which ontop of my normal pregnancy screening this was added.
Now i am confused as to how i would of got gonorrhea if both parties are faithful. I tested positive and that was a massive kick to the vag. Both husband and i were in disbelief, like how could it happen. I got treated and retested to which i found out that it was negative... woo hoo. Hubby was told to get tested, but he didn't, and took the medicine anyway, as obviously he would of got it from me. He didnt get retested as my results were negative after the course of medicine.
So with all the above information my question is, how could i have got this if both parties are faithful? Was it an error by the lab? (First test was urine +, 2nd was swab + and after medicine was a swab -) should i have asked for a retest before the treatment, as i was pregnant, could that have thrown out the results?
It has been well over a year since the results and it still plays on my mind and hubby still brings it up that i caught it.