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HIV subtype P and N

I took a HIV test at 12 weeks post exposure. It was CMIA test - HIV1/2 and P24. I checked with the lab what machine do they use they said aBbott architect. I downloaded the manual and checked it checks for HIV 1 - Group M and O and HIV2. What if the infection is from another group of HIV1 like Group P or Group N? The test will then miss the infection ? Also the p24 will not be detectable at 12 weeks so the test will rely on on the antibody portion. Now if it can’t detect antibody of Group p and Group N then don’t you feel it’s not conclusive?
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Avatar universal
Hello, structure of the antibodies are very similar regardless of the group or strain, hence mutant strains also generate positive/equivocal results rather than negative. That's why PCR tests are not diagnostic but antibody tests are.
Helpful - 0
20620809 tn?1504362969
Well, how could you have a broken condom for both anal and vaginal?  once it breaks, you didn't stop? One time exposure is low risk.  And that the csw uses condoms means she protects herself and condoms are her norm.  

You tested negative.  If you need to ask such specific testing questions, then you need to talk to the manufacturer.  Everyone here would say anxiety is not allowing you to accept your negative test result but that you ARE conclusively negative.  If you do not believe, see your doctor.  
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3 Comments
Hi, I was very drunk that night. I am no doubt very anxious as well. I realised the condom was broken once I finished probably because I was so drunk.

I will try and see if there is a way to speak to the manufacturer. I don’t know if that is possible, it never occurred to me. Thank you for helping me though and reassuring me that my 12 weeks is conclusive and final. Have you heard or know of an instance where a 12 week result changed later on without any new exposure? Has that ever happened ?
If a condom fails it is a large rip down the seam and it hangs in tatters from the ring at the base, so both of you would know that. It seems unlikely that she would let you continue with it broken hanging like that, so if that even happened it was likely not long and she would have been talking to you about it. And it isn't easy to have sex when a male is drunk. Just throwing some possibilities out there, since you claimed to have both anal and vaginal with a broken condom.
Thank you for your response. One thing is certain we did have sex and the condom failed. What I believe is the good part I tested negative at 12 weeks. It’s just that few physical symptoms and to some extent the anxiety is giving me a tough time and making it hard for me to believe my results. Ok can you guys tell me how normally would you guide somebody to deal with anxiety problem over an exposure. Probably would try that. I can understand that you may not be mental health experts but out of experience what do you suggest. I’m not comfortable seeing a counsellor at this time.when as per you is testing conclusive?
20620809 tn?1504362969
What was your risk?
Helpful - 0
2 Comments
Risk was quite substantial- condom break with a CSW and I realised this only once I finished. It was vaginal and anal - both. Also, had every symptom rash, fever and a flu with joint pains.

I know my exposure was risky and I also know my symptoms were typical. What I request is a logical explanation to my valid question please.
I have also checked the FDA site which approved the test and there also it says testing for M and O group. So what about the P and N groups?
366749 tn?1544695265
COMMUNITY LEADER
Trust your test report, it is conclusive. You do not have HIV, please move on with your life and stay away from HIV related internet searching. Though decreased in number, but p24 do not disappear completely at 12th week, still remain detectable.

All the commercially available tests are conclusive at 12 week mark
Helpful - 0
1 Comments
Hi, thanks for answering and reassuring me. Needed it.

What I’m seeking is a logical explanation to the fact that when HIV 1 has four groups M N O P and the test manual by the manufacturer of the test itself says HIV 1 Group M and O. Then why and how is it conclusive. Wouldn’t it miss P and N group infections ? Please help me with understanding this.

You would agree the Abbott Acrchitect CMIA technique is used commonly all over the world and I feel it’s a valid question. Request your guidance and education on this?
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